EASA Part 66 – Module 02 – Practise exam questions

Based on our vast experience with EASA PART 66 examination questions and question databanks, we have prepared a practice example of questions with explanations to practice for your next exam.

Disclaimer: This questions are for training purposes only! They are in no way appearing on Suntech’s’ controlled examination sessions.

At the end of the questions you are most welcome to comment, debate and ask questions.

 

Module 2: Physics

 

  1. An atom containing three free electrons in its outermost shell is categorized as:
    Options:
    A) pentavalent
    B) covalent
    C) trivalent

    Correct Answer: c) trivalent

    Explanation: An atom with three valence electrons is termed ‘trivalent’ because ‘tri’ means three, and ‘valent’ refers to its valence electrons.
     

  2. What is the term for the process of breaking down a chemical compound into simpler substances?
    Options:
    A) bombardment
    B) synthesis
    C) analysis

    Correct Answer: c) analysis

    Explanation: Analysis, in chemistry, refers to the decomposition of a compound into its constituent parts, often to determine its composition.
     

  3. The approximate mass of a proton is equivalent to the mass of which subatomic particle?
    Options:
    A) neutron
    B) beta particle
    C) electron

    Correct Answer: a) neutron

    Explanation: Protons and neutrons have very similar masses, both significantly greater than the mass of an electron or a beta particle (which is an electron).
     

  4. What effect do catalysts have on chemical reactions?
    Options:
    A) speed up reactions
    B) speed up and slow down reactions
    C) slow down reactions

    Correct Answer: a) speed up reactions

    Explanation: Catalysts are substances that increase the rate of a chemical reaction without being consumed in the process. They achieve this by lowering the activation energy.
     

  5. An isotope of an element will primarily differ in the number of which subatomic particle?
    Options:
    A) electrons
    B) neutrons
    C) protons

    Correct Answer: b) neutrons

    Explanation: Isotopes of an element have the same number of protons (defining the element) but a different number of neutrons, leading to different atomic masses.
     

  6. When ice melts into liquid water, what happens to its volume?
    Options:
    A) the same amount of space
    B) less space
    C) more space

    Correct Answer: b) less space

    Explanation: Water is unusual in that its solid form (ice) is less dense than its liquid form. This is why ice floats, and melting ice contracts in volume.
     

  7. What is the process called when a substance transitions directly from a solid to a gas phase without becoming a liquid?
    Options:
    A) transformation
    B) sublimation
    C) state leap

    Correct Answer: b) sublimation

    Explanation: Sublimation is a phase transition that occurs when a solid turns directly into a gas without passing through a liquid phase, such as dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) at room temperature.
     

  8. Compared to carbon-12 (C12), carbon-14 (C14), an isotope of carbon, possesses the:
    Options:
    A) same numbers of neutrons
    B) same numbers of protons
    C) same number of electrons

    Correct Answer: b) same numbers of protons

    Explanation: Isotopes of the same element, such as C12 and C14, always have the same number of protons. The difference lies in the number of neutrons.
     

  9. Molecules composed of dissimilar atoms are held together by which type of force?
    Options:
    A) adhesive force
    B) magnetic force
    C) cohesive force

    Correct Answer: a) adhesive force

    Explanation: Adhesive forces are attractive forces between different types of molecules, causing them to cling to each other. Cohesive forces are between like molecules.
     

  10. The process of creating a complex compound from simpler, readily available materials is known as:
    Options:
    A) synthesis
    B) analysis
    C) bombardment

    Correct Answer: a) synthesis

    Explanation: Synthesis is the chemical process of forming a more complex substance by combining simpler substances, often from basic or elemental components.
     

  11. An aircraft’s center of gravity is adjusted with two weights: 10 kg placed 4m aft of the C of G, and 5 kg placed 2m aft of the C of G. To balance the C of G, where must a 20 kg weight be added?
    Options:
    A) 2.5m
    B) 4m
    C) 2m

    Correct Answer: a) 2.5m

    Explanation: To balance the C of G, the sum of moments about the C of G must be zero. For the existing weights, the total moment aft is (10 kg * 4m) + (5 kg * 2m) = 40 Nm + 10 Nm = 50 Nm. To counteract this with a 20 kg weight, it must be placed 50 Nm / 20 kg = 2.5m forward of the C of G. The question implies adding it to balance, so it’s placed to create an opposing moment.
     

  12. One Newton is precisely equivalent to which of the following?
    Options:
    A) 1 kilogram meter per second per second
    B) 1 kilogram of force
    C) 1 joule per second

    Correct Answer: a) 1 kilogram meter per second per second

    Explanation: The Newton (N) is the SI unit of force. According to Newton’s second law, Force = mass × acceleration (F = ma), so 1 N = 1 kg * 1 m/s².
     

  13. Which formula correctly represents the calculation for stress?
    Options:
    A) load divided by cross sectional area
    B) area divided by load
    C) load multiplied by cross sectional area

    Correct Answer: a) load divided by cross sectional area

    Explanation: Stress (sigma) is defined as the force or load (F) applied per unit of cross-sectional area (A) of a material, i.e., sigma=F/A.
     

  14. What is a likely consequence if a hydraulic system accumulator has insufficient air pre-charge pressure?
    Options:
    A) rapid pressure fluctuations during operation of services
    B) rapid movement of the operating jacks
    C) slow build up of pressure in the system

    Correct Answer: a) rapid pressure fluctuations during operation of services

    Explanation: A low pre-charge in an accumulator means it cannot effectively dampen pressure surges. This leads to unstable pressure and rapid fluctuations, especially during system operation.
     

  15. If a hydraulic accumulator with a pre-charge air pressure of 1000 psi is pumped with 1500 psi hydraulic pressure, what will the system pressure gauge display?
    Options:
    A) 2500 psi
    B) 1500 psi
    C) 1000 psi

    Correct Answer: b) 1500 psi

    Explanation: The system pressure gauge will read the hydraulic system pressure, which is 1500 psi. The accumulator’s purpose is to store energy and maintain pressure, but the gauge shows the current fluid pressure.
     

  16. When a twisting force is applied to the head of a bolt, which type of stress is predominantly exerted?
    Options:
    A) Shear
    B) Compressive
    C) Torsion

    Correct Answer: c) Torsion

    Explanation: Torsion is the twisting stress applied to an object due to an applied torque. When a bolt is tightened, its head experiences torsional stress.
     

  17. When a steel bar is subjected to excessive stress, the point at which it no longer reverts to its original shape upon removal of the load is termed the:
    Options:
    A) Plastic limit
    B) Elasticity limit
    C) Deformation limit

    Correct Answer: b) Elasticity limit

    Explanation: The elastic limit is the maximum stress a material can withstand without undergoing permanent deformation. Beyond this point, it enters the plastic deformation region.
     

  18. If a tensile load is applied to a bar, what will be the primary effect?
    Options:
    A) bend
    B) crush
    C) stretch

    Correct Answer: c) stretch

    Explanation: A tensile load is a pulling force. When subjected to tension, a material will primarily stretch or elongate in the direction of the applied force.
     

  19. The process of combining two or more different vectors to determine a single equivalent vector is termed:
    Options:
    A) resultant
    B) resolution
    C) component

    Correct Answer: a) resultant

    Explanation: The resultant vector is the single vector that represents the sum of two or more vectors. Resolution is the opposite process of breaking down a vector into components.
     

  20. What is the term for the specific point where the entire gravitational force of a body is considered to act?
    Options:
    A) centre of gravity
    B) point of equilibrium
    C) centre of mass

    Correct Answer: a) centre of gravity

    Explanation: The centre of gravity is the imaginary point in a body where the total weight of the body appears to act. For uniform gravitational fields, it coincides with the centre of mass.
     

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